Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth. (2 Timothy 2:15)
Through your precepts I get understanding; therefore I hate every false way. Your word is a lamp to my feet and a light to my path. (Psalm 119:104-105)
To the Reader: Now, let me first say this. I’m not one of those who believes that we should throw out or burn all the modern translations of the bible. For I do believe that God can speak to us even through the most watered-down corrupt translations out there. So, even if you do read one of those inferior bibles, I do believe that you’re able to see God’s plan of salvation unfolding through the pages. Therefore, I’m not telling anyone to throw out their favorite bible. But that being said, we should make it our aim to read a translation that accurately represent what God is saying to us. Wouldn’t you agree?
Now, my personal bible of choice is the King James version. This is because I do believe it’s the most literal translation available to us today when it comes to proper word usage. However, even though I do use it as my base text, I do find myself at times trusting the accuracy of other translations more in certain passages. So, that should make it clear that I’m not a King James only person. Nor do I believe that its translation is perfect. This is also true when it comes to the Septuagint bible. For even though I do use it at times, I don’t believe that it’s 100% perfect in all places.
I would like to make you aware of some scriptures that were (and still are) part of the 1560 Geneva bible and the 1611 King James bible as well (both still can be purchased today). And even though Jesus himself quoted from these scriptures, they were removed from our bibles a few hundred years later. So, what scriptures am I talking about? Well, it’s the scriptures that are found in the Septuagint bible. Now, even though the modern Protestant church has rejected these scriptures, they are still used and regarded as scripture by the Greek Orthodox Church of today.
Now, the Septuagint bible is the Greek translation of the Old Testament that was written around 300 years before Christ by Jews. And as mentioned earlier, I do include the Septuagint bible in my studies of the Old Testament. And in some cases, I even prefer it over the Masoretic text. This is due to the fact that there are inconsistencies in the Masoretic text. For it doesn’t always line up with passages quoted by the authors of the New Testament. Also, it contains errors such as the ones found in the genealogy of Seth.
And let’s keep in mind that the Septuagint was translated from the Hebrew scriptures around 300 years before the birth of Christ by Jews. On the other hand, the Masoretic text we have today came about almost 1000 years after the resurrection of Christ by the Masoretic Jews. Therefore, I study both in the Septuagint as well as the Masoretic text. But as said before, I mostly prefer the Masoretic text when it comes to proper word usage. For I find it more literal in its translation and that it has a better choice of words.
Below are some passages found in the New Testament that are quotes from the Old Testament. I have compared these quotes both from the Septuagint and the Masoretic text. I put an asterisk by the one I thought was the closest to the New Testament. However, you can be the judge for yourself on which one you think is the closest.
Matthew 4:4: “But He answered and said, “It is written, ‘Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceeds from the mouth of God.’” (Matthew 4:4 NKJV)
Matthew 12:20-21: “A bruised reed shall he not break, and smoking flax shall he not quench, till he send forth judgment unto victory. And in his name shall the Gentiles trust.” (KJV)
Matthew 13:15 KJV: For the hearts of this people have grown dull. Their ears are hard of hearing, And their eyes they have closed, Lest they should see with their eyes and hear with their ears, Lest they should understand with their hearts and turn, So that I should heal them. (Matthew 13:15 NKJV)
Matthew 15:8-9: “This people draweth nigh unto me with their mouth, and honoureth me with their lips; but their heart is far from me. But in vain they do worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men.” (KJV)
Luke 4:18-19: “The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised, To preach the acceptable year of the Lord.” (KJV)
Acts 2:26-27: “Therefore did my heart rejoice, and my tongue was glad; moreover also my flesh shall rest in hope: Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.” (KJV)
Acts 7:43: “Yea, ye took up the tabernacle of Moloch, and the star of you god Remphan, figures which ye hade to worship them: and I will carry you away beyond Babylon.” (KJV)
Act 15:15-17: After this I will return, and will build again the tabernacle of David, which is fallen down; and I will build again the ruins thereof, and I will set it up: That the residue of men might seek after the Lord, and all the Gentiles, upon whom my name is called, saith the Lord, who doeth all these things. (KJV)
Romans 11:9: And David saith, Let their table be made a snare, and a trap, and a stumbling block, and a recompence unto them. (KJV)
Roman 15:12: And again, Esaias saith, There shall be a root of Jesse, and he that shall rise to reign over the Gentiles; in him shall the Gentiles trust. (KJV)
Hebrews 1:6: “And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.” (KJV)
Hebrew 2:7: “Thou madest him a little lower than the angels; thou crownedst him with glory and honour, and didst set him over the works of thy hands.” (KJV)
Hebrews 10:5-7: Therefore, when He came into the world, He said: “Sacrifice and offering You did not desire, But a body You have prepared for Me. In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin You had no pleasure. Then I said, ‘Behold, I have come - In the volume of the book it is written of Me - To do Your will, O God.’” (Hebrews 10:5-7 NKJV)
Hebrew 11:21: By faith Jacob, when dying, blessed each of the sons of Joseph, bowing in worship over the head of his staff. (Hebrews 11:21 ESV)
Hebrews 13:6: “So that we may boldly say, The Lord is my helper, and I will not fear what man shall do unto me.” (KJV)
Peter 4:18: “And if the righteous scarcely be saved, where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear?” (KJV)
Now we come to the Dead Sea Scrolls and their role in supporting the Septuagint. For according to the article “The ‘Original’ Bible and the Dead Sea Scrolls” on the Biblical Archaeology Society website, we can see that some of the Dead Sea Scrolls actually support the Septuagint text.
For Noah Wiener writes: “Some of the Dead Sea Scrolls actually have more in common with the Greek Septuagint than the traditional Hebrew Masoretic Text. This suggests that the Greek translators must have been translating from Hebrew texts that resembled the Dead Sea Scrolls. Then, Noah goes on and give us an example of one of the Dead Sea Scrolls that contains a clue to the accuracy of the Septuagint by quoting a question that was given to Emanuel Tov, which is: “Did Hannah bring one bull or three bulls as an offering at Shiloh?" (1 Samuel 1:24)
So, what was Emanuel Tov answer? Well, he said: “When the infant Samuel had been weaned and his mother, Hannah, finally came to Shiloh with her son, she also brought with her an offering for the Lord that is described in two ways in our textual sources. According to the Masoretic Text, she brought ‘three bulls,’ but according to the Septuagint and a Qumran scroll (4QSama from 50– 25 B.C.E.) she brought one ‘three-year-old bull.”
“I believe that Hannah probably offered only a single bull (as in the Septuagint and 4QSama); supporting this choice is the next verse in the Masoretic Text which speaks about ‘the bull.’ I believe the Masoretic Text was textually corrupted. ...The evidence of the Septuagint, being in Greek, always depends on a reconstruction into Hebrew, and consequently the Qumran scroll here helps us decide between the various options. Incidentally an offering of a ‘three-year-old bull’ is mentioned in Genesis 15:9. It shows that a Hebrew text underlying the Septuagint once existed in which Hannah brought only one three-year-old bull”
So, according to Noah Wiener, the Masoretic text was showing its own error. For we don’t see anywhere about a three-bull requirement in the law of Moses. For as mentioned above, the Masoretic text itself says in Genesis 15:9: “And he said unto him, Take me an heifer of three years old.”
Below we see that both the Masoretic and the Septuagint text agree that a “three-year-old” bull (heifer) is to be offered:
Below we can see that the Masoretic text is wrong in saying it was “three bulls” that Hannah took with her. For the Septuagint, Dead Sea Scrolls and the Syriac agree that it should read a “three-year-old” bull:
Now, for something else that might get controversial. I do believe that the writings of the Apocrypha are part of the God’s inspired scriptures. For we can still find them in today’s copies of the 1560 Geneva bible and in some King James Bibles as well. You can purchase these bibles at places such as Christianbooks.com, Amazon.com and other places as well. And as mentioned before, the King James bible had the Apocrypha in it since day one of the original 1611 version which is also available today. This is also true for the Geneva Bible as well.
So, if those brilliant, learned men who translated the 1560 Geneva bible as well as those of the 1611 felt that it was good to include the Apocrypha in their translation, who are we to say otherwise. However, around the 1800 hundreds, certain publishers started printing some bibles without the apocrypha in it. And what is interesting is the fact that there was a renewed interest in the Olympics in the 1800 as well. So, could this have brought about the removal of the Apocrypha? I ask this because contained within the Apocrypha is the books of Maccabees. And within the pages of Maccabees are some passages that condemn sport activities. But as said before, there are those publishers who still rightfully include it in their versions of the bible. And yes, as mentioned earlier, Jesus himself quoted from the Apocrypha.
Now, you may have heard someone preach to you about the three or four hundred years of silence. For they claim that this supposedly existed between the last recorded prophet of the Masoretic Old Testament and the New. Well, that’s not true because the apocrypha books were written during those supposed “silent years.” Therefore, we see the words of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ stand true when he said: “For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John.” (Matthew 11:13 KJV) Yes, brothers and sisters in Christ, our Lord said that they would prophesy up to the time of John the Baptist. So why would we believe that they stopped at the prophet Malachi when Jesus Himself said otherwise? (see articles below)
Below are some interesting cross references between the New Testament & the Apocrypha. Those passages that have an asterisk by them are actual quotes found in the New Testament margins of the original 1611 KJV bible. This shows me that the KJV translators may have believed that the writers of the New Testament were quoting from the Apocrypha itself. For why else would they include them in their work?
Matthew 6:6-7 and Sirach 7:14, 16
Matthew 6:19-21 and Sirach 29:10-13
Matthew 7:17, 20 and Sirach 27:6
Matthew 9:36 and Judith 11:19
Matthew 23:34-38 and 2 Esdras 1:29-33
Matthew 24:16-18 and 1 Maccabees 2:28-30
Matthew 27:42-43 and Wisdom 2:17-20
Luke 14:13-14 and Tobit 4:7-11
James 5:4 and Tobit 4:14
As said before, the 1611 KJV bible contained the Apocrypha. And within the margins of the Apocrypha are cross-referenced passages that are found in the New Testament. Below, I included some of these cross references found within the margins. This again shows me that the translators had a level of trust for the scriptures of the Apocrypha
1 Maccabees 4:59 and John 10:22:
2 Esdras 5:2 and Matthew 24:12:
2 Esdras 8:3 and Matthew 20:16
Below are some links to videos, articles and where to get a complete bible containing the New Testament and Septuagint Old. Now, I personally don’t attend the Greek Orthodox Church (at least not at the time I wrote this article). However, I do agree with them that the Septuagint and the apocrypha are the inspired word of God. So, do some research on you own. Because when it came to the truth, you need to test everything that’s being told to you. And yes, that means to test what you beloved Pastor is telling you as well.
For we read that: “The brothers immediately sent Paul and Silas away by night to Berea, and when they arrived they went into the Jewish synagogue. Now these Jews were more noble than those in Thessalonica; they received the word with all eagerness, examining the Scriptures daily to see if these things were so.” (Acts 17:10-11 ESV) So again, if Paul’s message needed to be tested, how much more does today’s Pastors and Teachers as well..
Note: Some of the bible versions used in this article are listed below to help in your study of God’s Word:
Sometimes you can mis out on what's really being said in your bible. For there seems to be some translators who feel that the "Litteral Meaning" in God's word can be offensive. And if that was so, why would God inspire them write it in the first place? So, to read a more literal wording, click the link below.
A few words to the reader: I would like remind you brothers and sister in Christ of the importance of God’s word that has been handed down to us from generation to generation. For there seems to be some corruption found in these newer modern translations of the bible. Now please don’t get me wrong, for I do believe that God can speak to us even in the most watered-down corrupted translation. However, by reading these inferior translations, we may not be getting the full meaning of the text.
Now, I would like to say that I do look to the King James Version for proper wording and for a more literal translation. I say this because it seems as though some newer versions find it offensive to use the literal words found in scripture. Therefore, we may not get a clear picture of God’s message to us. Also, I found that some of these more modern versions have passages that are badly translated. Now, I’m not saying that my text of choice is perfect and the only one that we should be reading. For I do find myself agreeing more with some of these other translations in certain areas. Therefore, I believe it would be best to have a set of different translations on hand. This way, by the guidance of the Holy Spirit, you can examine for yourself these different bibles and know what is true. Amen.
“How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!” (KJV)
In this passage of Isaiah, we have a description of Satan who is here referred to as “Lucifer” (light bearer) in the King James Bible as well as by some other versions of the bible. However, there are versions out there that make it confusing by calling him “morning star” or even “Day Star,” which are words used in the New Testament pertaining to Jesus Christ himself. Those other versions that read as the King James Bible are the Geneva, NKJV, Webster, DBY, as well as the Septuagint. The HNV uses the Hebrew word itself (heylel) and the YLT says “shining one,” thus I didn’t include them below.
“And one shall say unto him, What are these wounds in thine hands? Then he shall answer, Those with which I was wounded in the house of my friends.” (KJV)
Here in Zechariah 13:6-7 we have a prophecy concerning our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. In verse 7 we have the prophecy of what would take place on the night of his betrayal concerning him and his disciples (see Matthew 26:31). However, in verse six we read about the wounds that he would receive by those who accused him of being a false prophet. Now, in the literal Hebrew it says that the accused would receive these wounds in his “hands.” (See Psalms 22:16 and Luke 24:39). However, from what we can see from the majority of the more popular versions quoted below, this Hebrew word for hands is being change into words such as arms, back or chest.
So, my question is, isn’t there in the Hebrew language a literal word for these other choices used? I would have to say yes there is and I included them below. So, wouldn’t it make sense if God wanted any of these other words to be used, He would have had Zechariah use their literal words themselves? God is not the author of confusion (1 Corinthians 14:33). It is also worth noting that the NASV has in its footnotes that the Hebrew is literally “hands.” So why didn’t they use it? Some other versions that also use the literal translation “hands” are the Septuagint by Benton, the Geneva bible, the original NKJV 1982 edition, the Webster, Darby, Young's, MKJV, and the UKJV bible.
Below we have those Hebrew words for “arm,” “back” and “breast.” Again, wouldn’t it make sense if any of these words were to be used, God would have put it on the heart of Zechariah the prophet?
Below are those other translations that refused to use the word “hands” in their text (why would they do this?):
Below are commentary notes showing that this is a prophesy of our crucified Savior Jesus Christ:
“And there came a leper to him, beseeching him, and kneeling down to him, and saying unto him, If thou wilt, thou canst make me clean. And Jesus, moved with compassion, put forth his hand, and touched him, and saith unto him, I will; be thou clean.” (KJV)
Here we have Jesus showing love and compassion to a Leper. Both the old and modern versions I checked use the word “compassion” or “pity” except for the NIV. For the NIV uses the word “indignant” which is to show anger. What is interesting however, the NIV uses the words “pity” or “compassion” everywhere else this Greek word is being used. So, why didn’t they use it for that passage above also? This is poor scripture translating by the NIV translators.
“No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.” (KJV)
Here, we have John the apostle declaring that Jesus is the only begotten Son of God. However, we have those other versions who are making things confusing by using the word “God” instead of the word “Son” here. But, didn’t John himself call Jesus the “only begotten Son” in John 3:16 and 18 as well as in 1 John 4:9 of his epistle? So, it doesn’t make sense why some translations would insert the word “God” in John 18 instead. Therefore, I believe it make more sense to use the word “Son” in reference to our Saviors relationship with the Father. Other versions that support this are the Geneva, NKJV, NIV, CSB, RSV, ASV, YLT, DBY, WEB, HNV, REV, MKJV, EMTV, BSB, BBE, AFV, ABP, LITV, JUB, GW, Weymouth, Webster, WEBA, TS2009, TPT, TCENT, RV, AENT.
Below are those versions that change the word “Son” into “God”:
Below are some other versions that use the proper word “Son” for Jesus. However, they wrongfully include the word God or something similar in describing Jesus.
“And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.” (KJV)
In John 3:1-12, we have Jesus in a discourse with a Pharisee named Nicodemus. However, starting at verse 13 and ending at verse 21, John the apostle is giving us detailed information concerning Jesus after his death and resurrection. Now, in verse 13 we read that he went to the Father in heaven after his death and resurrection. However, there are those versions that leave out the last portion of the passage which reads: “which is in heaven.” And yes, that last portion does makes it much clearer that John is talking about Jesus after his death and resurrection. However, even without that last portion, we can still see from the wording that it’s talking about Jesus who has already died and rose again.
But that all being said, almost all versions (even those mentioned above) make it even more confusing. For they make it as though Jesus was speaking in verses 13-21. However, I believe (as well as others) that the scriptures make it clear that this is not true. For Jesus told Nicodemus in verse 12, “If I have told you earthly things and you do not believe, how will you believe if I tell you heavenly things?” So, why would Jesus start speaking of heavenly things to the already confused Nicodemus? Therefore, it makes more sense at this point that it’s John who is now speaking in light of Jesus death and resurrection that already took place.
Below are some bible versions that show John is the one who is speaking here, not Jesus:
Below are those versions that don’t have the words “who is in heaven.” However, we still can see from these verses that Jesus already rose out of hell and is now with God the Father:
Below are those versions that do include “who is in heaven” (or the like). This would even make it more clearer that Jesus was already in heaven at this point. So, please don’t believe that this was Jesus who was speaking. For he being completely human like us, could not be both on earth and heaven at the same time. For this would make him omnipresent which is completely unbiblical:
Below is a translation that totally inserted their own words to make this passage read as though Jesus was speaking:
“I commend to you our sister Phoebe, a servant of the church at Cenchreae, that you may welcome her in the Lord in a way worthy of the saints, and help her in whatever she may need from you, for she has been a patron of many and of myself as well. (Romans 16:1-2 ESV)
In that passage above, we read that Phoebe is a “servant of the church in Cenchrea.” This is true for most of the translations out there. Now, there are some bibles versions use the words deacon or deaconess which is fine also. For the bible clearly shows that women can serve within the church as well. However, the DBY and a few others version makes it confusing by using the word minister instead of servant or deacon. This seems deceptive because it appears as if Phebe is some leader in the church. But the truth of it is, she’s not. For the Greek word simply means a servant, waiter or an attendant. So that should make it clear that Phebe is not a Pastor, Teacher, Elder, Overseer or a Minister. Again, she is simply a servant (deacon) who is chosen to help serve in the church in one capacity or another.
Now as said above, scripture clearly shows that a woman can become a deacon. For in 1 Timothy 3:11 we have the requirement for a woman deacon: “In the same way, the women are to be worthy of respect, not malicious talkers but temperate and trustworthy in everything.” So, women that want to be deacons (servants) in the church must have these credentials. Unfortunately, we have other translations, including the KJV that make verse 3:11 to be the wives of the deacons. However, this is not true because we don’t see this being applied to the Elders wives a few verses earlier.
Now, a good example of a deacon would be the disciple Stephen who was chosen to be a helper in the church at Jerusalem as declared in the book of Acts chapter 6. He was appointed to serve tables (not the pulpit) in the church fellowship along with seven others as well. We can see this to be true in Peters own statement in this same chapter. For he being an Elder said: “It is not desirable that we should leave the word of God and serve tables.” (Acts 6:2) So again, the word servant or deacon is a good translation.
Below are a few passages that make it clear that Phoebe is a deacon in the church:
Below is a version that’s trying to make Phoebe out to be some church leader:
Reference notes:
“But we are all as an unclean thing, and all our righteousnesses are as filthy rags; and we all do fade as a leaf; and our iniquities, like the wind, have taken us away.” (KJV)
Now, we came to those words that are being toned down in our bibles. For there are bible translators that are changing the meaning of God’s word to maybe make it less offensive to the readers. But wait a minute, are not the words in the bible inspired by God in the first place? And if God put these words on the hearts of the saints, who are we to change their meaning? For let’s remember that our “Father (God) knows best.” Amen.
So that being said, if we look at the original meaning of the word “filthy rags” above, we can see that it means a “menstrual rag.” This would clearly show that our best works are unclean before God. But again, there are those translators who think they need to tone done the word of God.
First, we have those versions which make it clear that our own righteousness is not good:
Below are those versions which have toned down this passage. Now, I have left out those translations who use the word “filthy rags.” For one can still get the idea that it means a menstrual rag:
Thou hast built thy high place at every head of the way, and hast made thy beauty to be abhorred, and hast opened thy feet to everyone that passed by, and multiplied thy whoredoms. Thou hast also committed fornication with the Egyptians thy neighbors, great of flesh; and hast increased thy whoredoms, to provoke me to anger. (KJV)
Here in this passage above, we can see God using an illustration of a whore giving herself over to fornication. For this is done to expose Israel of her sins against him. Now, there are many bible versions out there that do get the message across to us. One who I believe gets it right is the NIV bible, which I listed below. However, there are those bible versions who do tone-it-down a little too much. These I also have listed below as well.
Below is the one version that made it very clear on what’s being said:
Below are those versions that watered-down the literal words. However, we should instead be making it very clear what God’s word is saying to us. Wouldn’t you agree?
Below are the definitions of the Hebrew words use for “spreading your legs”:
Below are those definition of the Hebrew words for “great of flesh.”
Therefore, behold, I will bring evil upon the house of Jeroboam, and will cut off from Jeroboam him that pisseth against the wall, and him that is shut up and left in Israel, and will take away the remnant of the house of Jeroboam, as a man taketh away dung, till it be all gone. (1 Kings 14:10)
Above, we have the KJV clearly showing that this passage is about the males in Jeroboam’s family line. However, there are those bible versions where the translators are again toning down God’s word. For they have removed the literal inspired words “pisseth against the wall” (or urinate in our modern English language) and the word “dung” (which means poop) from the bible. And why? Do they think it’s offensive or inappropriate to use the literal words of the bible? We are not called to sterilize the Bible but to present it in all its truth.
Now, even though most translations do include the word “dung,” they still leave out the reference to “urinate.” However, they do make it clear that it is the males that God is talking about here. However, as you can see below, the NKJV and the NLT do not convey much disgust as the scriptures intended. Nor does “those sitting on the wall” has anything to do with the male gender as the YLT has it.
Below are some bible versions that water-down the literal wording:
And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.
It’s so easy to follow traditions that have been handed down over the years. However, when those traditions involve the Gospel of Jesus Christ, we should make sure it is based on truth. So, let’s examine Matthew’s account of the genealogy. First off, according to the majority of today’s teaching, there is a big problem. For there are supposed to be three sets of fourteen generations. However, if we add all the names mentioned in Matthew’s genealogy, we would see that it only has thirteen generations.
So, how can this be solved so that Matthew’s gospel would be true? Well, in the “Aramaic English New Testament,” Joseph is recorded as the “guardian” (or “father”) of Mary instead of her husband. And in Luke’s account of the genealogy, Joseph would then be the literal son of Heli instead of his son-in-law as some proclaim. And the Aramaic translation is not alone in this. For the “Revised English Version” and the “Cepher” as well shows that Joseph is the “father” of Mary in Matthew’s account. This would mean that Mary’s father and husband both share the same names which wouldn’t be uncommon. For if we read through Luke’s genealogy account, there are others named “Joseph” throughout it as well.
Now, let’s remember that in the Greek, there is no distinct word for husband or for wife. It simply means a man or a woman. This would be true whether one is single or married. The only way to know how these words are being used is by the context of the passage itself. Therefore, one can be totally wrong by asserting that the passage in Matthew’s gospel is saying “Joseph the husband of Mary.” This would also be true in light of the confusion surrounding the missing generation in Matthew’s account already covered above. But in the Aramaic language there is a distinct word for husband. And we see this word for husband being used in verse 19 but not in verse 16 of Matthew’s gospel. Therefore, the word used in verse 16 can mean a guardian, or even more clearer, a father.
This all being said, Matthew’s account would be about Mary’s genealogy while Luke’s is about Joseph her husband. Therefore, I personally believe that these three translations (the Aramaic English New Testament, Revised English version as well as the Cepher) are declaring the truth. This would clearly solve the confusion surrounding these two genealogies. For there are one too many interpretations (which don’t make sense) that are trying to resolve the traditional account found in most of our bibles.
Below are those passages found in the Aramaic English New Testament, Revised English Version and the Cepher. Notice that Joseph is not referred to as the husband of Mary, but her “guardian” or “father” in the mentioned genealogy’s:
Below is the commentary section from the Aramaic English New Testament concerning what was mentioned above:
Below is the commentary section of the Revised English Version bible:
So, in closing, I just want to remind you that there are so many false interpretations and watered down teachings that have crept into our churches over the years. This would be true for the Catholic church, Protenant church, Non Denominal church or all the other churches out there. Therefore, it’s our job as Christians to: “Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.” (2 Timothy 2:15) Yes, test all thing and be like those Bereans, for: “These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so.” (Acts 17:11)
So, the next time someone teaches you something from God’s word, go home and open up your own bible and test what was said. Pray that the Holy Spirit would open your eyes to discern truth from error. Therefore, be diligent to walk after the Spirit, and be: “Looking unto Jesus the author and finisher of our faith; who for the joy that was set before him endured the cross, despising the shame, and is set down at the right hand of the throne of God.” (Hebrews 12:2) Amen.
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